Who's able to explain what exact rule applies when past tense plural/singular form of "be" is being used with subjunctive, e.g. "If he weren't so mean, he would buy one for me", while "If he wasn't so mean, he would buy one for me" is actually also correct, although in private conversation likely. And why it doesn't work with "If i were you"?

I think it's an exception.

Hi mnnmn, and thanks for your reply. Were you referring to "If i were you" construction as an exception, or the whole matter?

I'm start leaning English too :mrgreen:

This is the case of the present-unreal condition. We use the simple past tense after if. In the case of the verb to be we use a special (subjunctive) form in all if clauses.
If I were
you were
he, she were
we were
they were

Just for fun :-)


A policeman spots a woman driving and knitting at the same time. Driving up beside her, he shouts out the window, "Pull over!" "No," she shouts back, "a pair of socks!"

gremar,

I'm aware of that all right. Although it's more like an assertion of a fact, rather than explanation. :wink: Honestly, i'd like to know exactly why it is the way it is, and why both "If he weren't" and "If he wasn't" forms are grammatically acceptable. Thank you for replying however.

Hmmm.. mice , sorry nice chat. And in English!! Great. I don't mind chatting in English, do you need good Company??

vengeance, technically speaking "If he wasn't" is incorrect, in accordance with classic English grammar. Consider its acceptability as a natural language evolution.

name777,
Ok, granted. ;) Any language, being spoken on, evolves. Though, where did it came from, i mean, using plural form in all if-else instances?